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Slide 1: Exam Title : : ISEB BH0-010 ISTQB - ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level (2010 Syllibus) Version : Demo
Slide 2: 1. Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester? a. Adapt planning based on test results. b. Create test specifications. c. Plan tests. d. Write or review a test strategy A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester. C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester. Answer: D 2. Which of the following BEST describes a data-driven approach to the use of test execution tools? A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file D. Recording test scripts and playing them back Answer: C 3. Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true? A. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts B. A metrics-based approach is based on creating a work-breakdown structure first; an expert-based approach is based on input from estimation experts C. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach is based on a work-breakdown structure D. A metrics-based approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents; an expert-based approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation Answer: A 4. Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
Slide 3: log-on process, a critical component of the system. The incident reports do not follow a prescribed template and the data needs to be entered into the projects incident management tool. The table below describes the four defect reports submitted.
Slide 4: Which tester has reported the incident most effectively to enable capture in the incident management tool, considering the information and priority they have supplied?
Slide 5: A. Tester 3 B. Tester 1 C. Tester 2 D. Tester 4 Answer: A 5. When in the lifecycle should testing activities start? A. As early as possible B. After the test environment is ready C. After the requirements have been reviewed D. Once the code is available to test Answer: A 6. The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed.
Slide 6: Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so
Slide 7: on)? A. S, R, P, T, Q, U B. P, R, T, Q, S, U C. R, P, S, T, Q, U D. P, Q, R, S, U, T Answer: A 7. During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis? A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. B. Test implementation and execution C. Test analysis and design D. Test planning and control Answer: C 8. Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing? a. Stubs may be used. b. May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks). c. Tests the interactions between software components. d. Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects. A. a, c and d B. a, b and d C. b, c and d D. a, b and c Answer: B 9. Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools? a. Variables that are never used. b. Security vulnerabilities. c. Poor performance. d. Unreachable code.
Slide 8: e. Business processes not followed. A. b, c and d are true; a and e are false B. a is true; b, c, d and e are false C. c, d and e are true; a and b are false D. a, b and d are true; c and e are false Answer: D 10. Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 05 06 07 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No) If breed = No? Print Keep male and female rabbits apart!? End if 08 End If. Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed? A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = yes? B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = no? C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = yes? D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = no? Answer: B 11. Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard V-model after system testing? A. System Integration Testing B. Acceptance Testing C. Regression Testing D. Component Integration Testing Answer: A
Slide 9: 12. A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing? A. Decision testing. B. Statement testing C. State transition testing D. Equivalence partitioning Answer: A 13. Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four defect reports submitted.
Slide 10: Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they have supplied?
Slide 11: A. Tester 3 B. Tester 1 C. Tester 2 D. Tester 4 Answer: D 14. How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed? A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change. Answer: A 15. Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting? A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders B. Logging the outcome of test execution C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy. D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system Answer: A 16. Given the following flow chart diagram:
Slide 12: What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage, respectively? A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3. B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3. C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2. D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3 Answer: C 17. Which ordering of the list below gives increasing levels of test independence? a. Tests designed by a fellow-member of the design team. b. Tests designed by a different group within the organisation. c. Tests designed by the code author. d. Tests designed by different organisation.
Slide 13: A. c, a, b, d. B. d, b, a, c C. c, a, d, b. D. a, c, d, b. Answer: A 18. A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper or lower case. Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition? A. Feeds B. F33ds C. FEEDS D. fEEDs Answer: B 19. Which of the following are structure-based techniques? a. Decision table testing b. Boundary value analysis c. Multiple condition coverage d. Use case testing e. Decision testing A. a and c. B. b and d. C. b and e. D. c and e. Answer: D 20. Which statement BEST describes the role of testing? A. Testing ensures that the right version of code is delivered B. Testing can be used to assess quality. C. Testing shows that the software is error free.
Slide 14: D. Testing improves quality in itself. Answer: B

   
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